Why does God love us?

Does God love us because of Christ's atonement or does He love us before it?
Even if Christ's death secures love. Should this be seen as a means to an end rather than its source? This question seems difficult to answer. It seems that people don't stop to consider God's love. They take it for granted.

I say with Ephesians that God loved His own before the foundations of the world. Yet, Christ appears to die much later. Only to complicate the matter is election. Let us cast our focus from it alone for this is resolved slightly by Revelations which says "The lamb slain before the foundations of the world." It also causes problems. It can appear unclear whether atonement or election in eternity past is the source of God's love. Why does God love us?

Let us look into: if Christ's death and intercession are effective at securing God's love.
Or did God already love the man whom Christ was sent to effectively redeemed?

Lets look at scriptures and specifically for what Christ asks for in his prayers. Since, it will show what Christ tries to secure by his efforts and his interecession now that he is in heaven.

First, His intercession is not necessarily for his believer's prayers, on their behalf. It is redundant for God loves them. Too many people have this mistaken idea of intercession. Lets clear it up John 16:26-27 "In that day you will ask in my name, and I do not say to you that I will ask my father on your behalf; for the father himself loves you because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God."

Second, this makes Christ's intercession much different than how it is often viewed. It is no longer based specifically on our wants and needs in prayer. It is rather based on what His wishes for those given Him, and for those who believe in His name. His intercession is for the outpouring of grace. Namely for granting: the Holy spirit, sanctification, glorification, and the salvation of souls.

When Christ prays for the Holy Spirit in John 14:16. There are other questions about how the Holy Spirit is communicated to us from the Love of the Son and the Father in Christ's heaven intercession. Let's skip those for now to focus on the overall act of His intercession. His intercession is essentially his continual office as high priest. Hebrews links Christ's intercession as a single act of atonement with his death. This part of his intercession appears to be necessary for salvation rather than outside of it. Yet, this does not mean it is the only thing necessary. For like the act of atonement, it is part of a god-given covenant over a chosen people. (The covenant of grace.) It may be in this that the source of God's love rests. He is part of a greater agreement that is worked out from eternity past. In this context of Christ's prayer in John 17 appears to me related to his current intercessory prayers in heaven. In this, Christ mention's that he is sent.

Does this interecession then ask for His love toward the church? As if to secure it? Or does it assume a pre-existing love for the church based on something pre-existant? (election)

John 17 "... I am praying for them. I am not praying for the world but for those whom you have given me, for they are yours... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word. That they may all be one, just as we are one... so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me.... I made known to them your name, and I will continue to make it known that the love with which you loved me may be in them, and I in them."

This particular love does not seem to be asked for. It seems to be pre-existent because it is based on God's sovereignty of those who were given to Christ. It is also based on those who believe. Yet, these same people were loved in eternity past in the same manner as God loved Christ. Yet, this love is assumed. It is not created or asked for by the prayer. He does not ask God to love them. For God does already. He does ask on our behalf based on that love, so that we may be filled with joy. It seems that election and God's hidden will play a small part in it all. I must hold that God loved the saints prior to their conversion in a way different than common love.

Now, this love must be hardy enough to exist beside God's holy wrath for the sinner. It must be an unconditional love. A love that reaches from hell and back. Christ died for men, while they were yet sinners. He must have also loved them while they were yet sinners. The end of this type of love is always salvation. This is the love portayed in the Bible. Yet, the Bible is clear that certain conditions will be meet in all saved, especially faith. So by necessity this unconditional love, worked out in election, causes or includes the actions leading up to one's faith in Christ.

Now merely allowing man to make these actions of faith is indistiguishable from being disinterested or even unloving, until faith. Like a seed, this love remains dead. I propose this type of love that cannot send christ or cause him to die for the joy set before Him.

Now, for the lamb slain before the foundations of the world. God's plan was complete. It was as good as real. It is in heaven that this intercession goes on. The sacrifice and its end of salvation were realized at the time of God's election. It was not plan B but always plan A. I shall not presume this statement is bound by the same linear constraints either. Yet, one would ask why give the linear narratives of the Bible that define God's covenants as such?